I believe the answer is 0,2 or (0, 2.5)
Answer:
10
Step-by-step explanation:
I am pretty sure this is the answer because, the two sides added have to be greater than the longest side.
Let's look at an example.
We'll add the fractions 1/6 and 1/8
Before we can add, the denominators must be the same.
To get the denominators to be the same, we can...
- multiply top and bottom of 1/6 by 8 to get 8/48
- multiply top and bottom of 1/8 by 6 to get 6/48
At this point, both fractions involve the denominator 48. We can add the fractions like so
8/48 + 6/48 = (8+6)/48 = 14/48
Add the numerators while keeping the denominator the same the entire time.
The last step is to reduce if possible. In this case, we can reduce. This is because 14 and 48 have the factor 2 in common. Divide each part by 2.
The fraction 14/48 reduces to 7/24
Overall, 1/6 + 1/8 = 7/24
P = the money, so...
20 - ( 4 times 3)
20 - 12
8. She has $8 remaining. Hope it helps! I you could vote me brainliest, that would be awesome!
Answer:
1/16
Step-by-step explanation:
Four cards numbered (1, 5, 8,9)
Given the sample space S= 4
1.The first selection with replacement
Probability of picking a 9= 1/4
2. Second selection, probability of picking a 9= 1/4
Hence the probability that both cards drawn have the number 9.
Is = (1/4)*(1/4)= 1/16
