The selling price would be $87.50 originally!
I hope this helped! Mark me Brainliest! :) -Raven❤️
Y-intercept = -2
Note that your equation is in slope-intercept form. Slope-intercept form can represented by y = mx + b where m is the slope and b is the y-intercept.
Answer: The mean is 5
Step-by-step explanation:
If you add all of the numbers and divide by how much numbers there are (8), then you get 5. Then the mean absolute deviation is the number away from the mean.
So I will put the mean absolute deviation in order of the numbers
4 (1 away from mean), 3 (2 away from the mean), 4( 1 away from the mean), 5 (same number as the mean), 6 (1 away from the mean), 6(1 away from mean), 8 (3 away from mean), and, finally another 4 (1 away)
Hope this helps :)
Percent. Hope this helps!
Answer:
a. $45.86
b. $43.87
c. Percentage change = -4.40%)
Step-by-step explanation:
a. Let the price of share at the beginning of first year be represented with X
Now, Price of company's share dropped by 3.50% at the end of first year.
So, Price of share at the end of first year = x - 3.5% of x
= x - 0.035x
= 1x - 0.035x
= 0.965x
But it is equal to $44.25
=> 0.965x = 44.25
x = 44.25 / 0.965
x = 45.8549223
x = $45.86
b. During second year price of share decreased by $1.99. Therefore, Price of share at the end of second year = $45.86 - $1.99 = $43.87
c. Percentage change in the price of shares over two years = {(45.86 - 43.87)/45.86} *100
= (1.99/45.86)*100
= 0.04339294 * 100
= 4.40%
Now, as price of shares has dropped, the percentage change will be negative. (Δ% = -4.40%)
