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2 years ago

What does two and five fiths equal to

Mathematics

2 answers:

erma4kov [3.2K]2 years ago

6 0

2 and five fifths = 3

I hope that's help. Good night .

Molodets [167]2 years ago

3 0

It equals 3 because if five fifth is a whole then it equals a whole then add it to the 2 wholes hope it helps

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Keith has $500 in a savings account at the beginning of the summer. He withdraws $25 each week for food, clothes, and movie tick

alexdok [17]

Answer:

You can put this solution on YOUR website!

the inequality is 500 - 25x >= 200

this insures that he will have at least 200 at the end of the summer.

subtract 200 from both sides of that inequality and add 25x to both sides of that inequality to get 500 - 200 >= 25x

simplify to get 300 >= 25x

divide both sides of that equation by 25 to get 300 / 25 >= x

simplify to get 12 >= x

12 >= x means x <= 12.

when x is smaller than or equal to 12, he will be guaranteed to have at least 200 in the account at the end of the summer.

when x = 12, what is left in the account is 500 - 25 * 12 = 200.

when x = 11, what is left in the account is 500 - 25 * 11 = 225.

when x = 13, what is left in the account is 500 - 25 * 13 = 175.

the maximum number of weeks he can withdraw money from his account is 12.

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0

2 years ago

Please help me I put 100 points for anyone who helps me

LenaWriter [7]

Answer:

The discount id 40%, so the function is:

d = 0.4p

p = 100 ⇒ d = 40
p = 200 ⇒ d = 80
p = 300 ⇒ d = 120
p = 400 ⇒ d = 160
p = 500 ⇒ d = 200

The graph is attached

p = $85 ⇒ d = 0.4*$85 = $34

Sale price is:

CP = p - d = $85 - $34 = $51

7 0

2 years ago

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What is the volume of this model

saul85 [17]

39 dont forget the squared thigy

4 0

2 years ago

Special right triangles

Korolek [52]

Answer:

see down

Step-by-step explanation:

$cos 60 = \frac{x}{6\sqrt{3} } \\x = 6\sqrt{3} * cos60\\x = 6\sqrt{3} * \frac{1}{2} \\x = 3\sqrt{3}$

5 0

2 years ago

Use theorem 7. 4. 2 to evaluate the given laplace transform. do not evaluate the convolution integral before transforming. (writ

irga5000 [103]

With convolution theorem the equation is proved.

According to the statement

we have given that the equation and we have to evaluate with the convolution theorem.

Then for this purpose, we know that the

A convolution integral is an integral that expresses the amount of overlap of one function as it is shifted over another function.

And the given equation is solved with this given integral.

So, According to this theorem the equation becomes the

$\mathscr{L} \left( \int_{0}^{t} e^{-\tau} \cos \tau d \tau \right) = \frac{ \mathscr{L} (e^{-\tau} \cos \tau ) }{s} \\\mathscr{L} \left( \int_{0}^{t} e^{-\tau} \cos \tau d \tau \right) = \frac{\frac{s+1}{(s+1)^2+1}}{s} \\\mathscr{L} \left( \int_{0}^{t} e^{-\tau} \cos \tau d \tau \right) = \frac{1}{s}\left (\frac{s+1}{(s+1)^2+1} \right).$

Then after solving, it become and with theorem it says that the

$\mathscr{L} \left( \int_{0}^{t} f(\tau) d\tau \right) = \frac{\mathscr{L} ( f(\tau))}{s} .$

Hence by this way the given equation with convolution theorem is proved.

So, With convolution theorem the equation is proved.

Learn more about convolution theorem here

brainly.com/question/15409558

#SPJ4

3 0

1 year ago