SOLUTION
This is a binomial probability. For i, we will apply the Binomial probability formula
i. Exactly 2 are defective
Using the formula, we have
Note that I made the probability of being defective as the probability of success = p
and probability of none defective as probability of failure = q
Exactly 2 are defective becomes the binomial probability
Hence the answer is 0.1157
(ii) None is defective becomes
hence the answer is 0.4823
(iii) All are defective
(iv) At least one is defective
This is 1 - probability that none is defective
Hence the answer is 0.5177
Step-by-step explanation:
We can prove the statement is false by proof of contradiction:
We know that cos0° = 1 and cos90° = 0.
Let A = 0° and B = 90°.
Left-Hand Side:
cos(A + B) = cos(0° + 90°) = cos90° = 0.
Right-Hand Side:
cos(A) + cos(B) = cos(0°) + cos(90°)
= 1 + 0 = 1.
Since LHS =/= RHS, by proof of contradiction,
the statement is false.
Answer:
#1. X=3 and #2. Y=9
Step-by-step explanation:
Glad i could help, give me a follow, so if you need help with any other question, im here.
Step-by-step explanation:
S = { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 7, 8 }
n ( S ) = 8
Let A be the event of getting 4,
A = { 4 }
n ( A ) = 1
P ( A )
= n ( A ) / n ( S )
= 1 / 8
Therefore, the probability of spinning a 4 is 1 / 8.
S = { A, B, A, C, A, B }
n ( S ) = 6
Let Y be the event of getting C,
Y = { C }
n ( Y ) = 1
P ( Y )
= n ( Y ) / n ( S )
= 1 / 6
Therefore, the probability of spinning a C is 1 / 6.