Answer:
The Money Market.
Explanation:
The Financial markets can be broadly classified into two categories: Capital Market and Money Market. This classification is based on the maturity period of Financial instruments that trade in these markets. Lets study these two types of markets in detail:
<u>Money Market</u>
It is a market in which securities with a maturity of less than one year are traded. This is highly liquid market since the investors are repaid with the invested amount within one year of time. Due to a short duration, the instruments traded in this market are exposed to lower interest rate risk. A popular example of money market instrument can be Treasury Bills.
<u>Capital Market</u>
The securities that are traded in capital market are long-term and have a maturity of more than one year. The securities of capital market offer beefy returns to the investors due to higher duration and interest rate risks. If the security is of equity nature, then the market is termed as stock market. And if the traded security is bond, then we refer to it as a bond market. Examples of capital market instruments are shares and bonds.
Answer:
the share should sell at $46
Explanation:
We use the CAPM method to know the required return of the capital
risk free 0.04
market rate 0.1
beta(non diversifiable risk) 2
Ke 0.16000 = 16%
Now we calculate with the dividends grow model the intrinsic value of the share:
$4.6/0.1 = $46
Answer:
The range of possible transfer is $ 3.25 to $ 3.50
Explanation:
Data provided:
The purchasing cost of the transistor = $ 3.50
The total number of transistors needed = 8,000
The production cost of the transistor = $ 4.00
The included variable cost = $ 3.25
The included fixed cost = $ 0.75
Now,
the fixed cost cannot be altered, thus it will be there
hence,
the variable cost will be the factor that will evaluate the decision i.e $ 3.25
therefore, the <u>range of possible transfer is $ 3.25 to $ 3.50</u>
Answer:
If the marginal propensity to save is 0.12, the marginal propensity to consume(mpc) is 0.88, and the multiplier is 8.33.
Explanation:
From the question, we are given the following:
mps = Marginal propensity to save = 0.12
The marginal propensity to consume (mpc) and the multiplier can therefore be calculated as follows:
mpc = 1 - mps ........................ (1)
Substituting the values for mps into equation (1), we have:
mpc = 1 - 0.12
mpc = 0.88
Also, we have:
Multiplier = 1 / mps ..................... (2)
Substituting the values for mps into equation (2), we have:
Multiplier = 1 / 0.12
Multiplier = 8.33
Therefore, if the marginal propensity to save is 0.12, the marginal propensity to consume(mpc) is 0.88, and the multiplier is 8.33.
Answer:
c.$36,750
Explanation:
If Bulls Division were dropped, then the total segment margin would be $147,000 and the total common cost would be $110,250, Then:
Operating income = Segment margin - Total cost
= $147,000 - $110,250
= $36,750
Therefore, The Operating income for Knickers Corporation as a whole if the Bulls division were dropped would be $36,750.