Answer:
Yes
Step-by-step explanation:
x: -2 y: -8
x: -1 y: -2
x:0 y:0
x: 1 y: -2
x: 2 y : -8
Answer:
0.26 and 0.577
Step-by-step explanation:
Given :
x :___0 ___ 1 ____ 2 ____ 3
f(x):_0.80 _0.15__0.04 __0.01
The mean :
E(X) = Σ(x * p(x))
E(X) = (0*0.8) + (1*0.15) + (2*0.04) + (3*0.01)
E(X) = 0 + 0.15 + 0.08 + 0.03
E(X) = 0.26
Var(X) = Σx²*p(x)) - E(x)²
Σx²*p(x)) = (0^2*0.8) + (1^2*0.15) + (2^2*0.04) + (3^2*0.01) = 0.4
Σx²*p(x)) - E(x)² = 0.4 - 0.26² = 0.3324
Std(X) = √0.334 = 0.577
So the first 10 are 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10. Since a prime number is only divisible by 1 and itself and greater than 1, our answers are 2, 3, 5, and 7. That's 4 numbers, or 4/10=0.4 of the 10. Since percentage is based out of 1, we can multiply 0.4 by 100 to get 40%. I hope that Helped :)
