Answer:
a. positive, so Joan considers hamburger to be an inferior good.
Explanation:
Income elasticity is a microeconomic concept that aims to measure the sensitivity of demand in the face of income changes. To calculate the Income elasticity , a formula is used that divides the observed percentage change in quantity (Q) by the percentage change in price income (P): Elasticity = ▲ Q / ▲ P
The percentage change in quantity (▲ Q) and the percentage change in price (▲ P) are calculated by the difference in quantity / price in the two periods divided by the quantity / price of the first period.
▲ Q = (60 -50/60) = 0,16
▲ Q = (40.000 - 30.000/40.000) = 0,25
Elasticity = ▲ Q / ▲ P = 0,16/0,25 = 0,64
Therefore, the elasticity is positive.
This good is considered inferior, because according to microeconomic theory, inferior goods are those whose demand increases when consumer income decreases. This is the opposite of the normal good, which has its demand increased when income increases.
Answer:
The correct answer is "$155".
Explanation:
Given:
She sells to miller,
= $90
She sells to baker,
= $145
She sells to consumers,
= $155
Now,
The value added by miller will be:
= 
= 
($)
The value added by the baker will be:
= 
= 
($)
hence,
The GDP in this economy will be:
= 
($)
Answer:
The correct answer is B. arise often through application of (correct) accounting principles
.
Explanation:
Accounting analysis is an important precondition for an effective financial analysis. This is because the quality of the financial analysis, and the inferences made, depends on the quality of the implicit accounting information, the raw material for the analysis. Even though the accounting according to the accumulation principle allows to perceive the financial performance and condition of a company, which is not possible in the case of cash-based accounting, the imperfections of the company can distort the economic content of the financial reports.
Since the preferred stocks are cumulative in nature, the dividend amount not paid in the current year will be accumulated and paid in the next year.
Preferred dividend to be paid in 2017 = Value of preferred stock x Dividend rate
= (4700 x $50) x 5%
= 11750
Dividend to be paid in 2018 = same as 2017 as no new preferred stock issued
= 11750
Total dividend to be paid in 2018 = Dividend to be paid in 2018 + Dividend to be paid in 2017 – Dividend paid in 2017
= 11750 +11750 -7900
= $15600
Because you would want to enjoy what you wanna be if u didn’t then you maybe wouldn’t do it corrected because your not enjoying it. Hope this helps!
