Answer:
d. Year 3 has one cash flow in the amount of -$800.
Explanation:
Timeline arranges an event in chronological order.
When there's a cash outflow- money is being paid for something - it is represented by a negative number.
When there's a cash inflow - money is being received- it is represented by a positive number.
Lester's rented an equipment. This means he would be paying someone for the equipment. So the cash flow should be represented with a negative number
I hope my answer helps you
Answer:
Journal entry
Date Account & Explanation Debit Credit
Mar 17. Cash $2,700
Allowance for doubtful accounts $6370
Account receivable $9,070
Jul 29 Account receivable $6,370
Allowance for doubtful accounts $6,370
(To record amount reinstated)
Cash $6,370
Account receivable $6,370
(To record amount received)
Answer:
The correct answer is c) reach a settlement that benefits all parties.
Explanation:
Taking into account the nature of the relationship (long-term), an adequate treatment is exclusively required to achieve broad levels of negotiation. When this process is carried out under a harmonious environment, it is more feasible that part and part objectives can be achieved, which allows negotiations to be carried out in the future for the benefit of both people. A negotiation requires time and studies, for which some claims that harm the establishment of a common good must be lowered.
Answer:
IRR 6% for Jabob
His friend will need 12 years saving cash to obtain their collegue funds.
Explanation:
We will solve for the rate being the annuity of 3 payment of 800
and the present value 2,138.41
C 800
time 3
PV 2,138.41
rate ?
To solve we can use excel, a financial calculator or trial and error
For excel we will do the following:
write the list of cash through the loan life:
-2,138.41
+800
+800
+800
then we write in the empy cell
=IRR(
select the values and press enter
This will give the IRR which is 6%
For the second assignment:
we need to solve for time:
C 3,800
time n
rate 0.06
PV $31,897
We work out the formula:
Now we solve the right side and apply logarithmic properties
-n = -11.77128325
n = 11.77
It will take 12 years to obtain their target amount
Answer:
Diluted earnings per share is $2.87
Explanation:
The extent to which the option would dilute the earnings per share to the extent of the difference between the option of price and the share market price.
The shares that are capable of dilute the earnings can be computed thus:
Market price-option price/market price*outstanding options shares
market price is $36
option price is $30
outstanding options shares is 12,600
($36-$30)/$36*12,600=2,100 shares
Diluted earnings per share=$602,000/(208,000+2100)=$2.87