Answer and Explanation:
The computation of the MIRR is shown below:
But before that terminal cash flow required to calculate
<u>
Year Cash Flows FV Factor Formula Terminal Value
</u>
<u> (Cash Flow × FV Factor) </u>
0 ($1,000)
1 $450 1.21 (1 +10%)^(2) $545
2 $450 1.1 (1 + 10%)^(1) $495
3 $450 1 1 $450
Terminal Cash Flow $1,490
now the MIRR is
= 14.22%
As it can be seen that the MIRR is more than the WACC so the project should be accepted.
Answer: B. Each firm produces up to the point where the price of the good equals the marginal cost of producing the last unit.
Explanation:
Allocative efficiency means that the point chosen on the production possibility frontier is socially preferred.
In a perfectly competitive market, allocative efficency is achieved at the point where price equals the marginal cost of production. At this price producer and consumer surplus is maximised.
Short answer D
Labor costs could cause that type of inflation as well.
C is eliminated because Push Cost Inflation is cost increase in what it takes to make a product.
B is gone because it is really deflation not inflation. This answer implies a drop in price. Inflation is an increase in price.
A subsides are an increase in capital. That will lower the price or keep it stable. Not A
The answer is true. The mean salary for a set of workers is their average wage. Government and other organizations frequently track and use this metric as a benchmark for the pay scales of particular employees in a given sector, region, or nation.
Given the propensity of low pay in an economy for low pay, the validity of this measure in measuring wage levels is in question. This is because the earnings of a small fraction of high earners have a tendency to "skew" the average upward. The Office for National Statistics and the Scottish Low Pay Unit both utilize this measure in the UK for analyzing wage levels.
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