Answer:
11 in.²
Step-by-step explanation:
you can divide the shape into 2 rectangles and then you solve for the 2 rectangles and then you add them up.
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Since 2 of the 3 binomials are identical I would start the distribution there.
(1 + 4i)(1 + 4i) =
I'm sure you have learned in class by now that i-squared is = to -1, so we can make that substitution:
1 + 8i + 16(-1) which simpifies to
1 + 8i - 16 which simplifies further to
-15 + 8i. Now we need to FOIL in the last binomial:
(-15 + 8i)(-4 + 4i) =
Combine like terms to get
Again make the substitution of i-squared = -1:
60 - 92i + 32(-1) which simplifies to
60 - 92i - 32 which simpifies, finally, to a solution of:
28 - 92i
= 19 this is the answer I'm guessing since 16-12= 4 so 16 is 4 more than 12
2/18
3/27
4/36
5/45
6/54
Take any number let's say 9
Then 9/9 = 1
Or 9/9 = 1/1
Then if you multiply the bottom half of those by 9, you get
9/9 becomes 9/81
and
1/1 becomes 1/9
So to generate any fraction equivalent to 1/9
take any number and write it as one, i.e. 5/5 = 1 (or 1/1)
and then multiply the bottom part by 9 = 5/45
Answer:
The discount points will cost 3749.
Step-by-step explanation:
The first monthly interest payment is $820.
So, annual interest paid = = $9,840
Now, converting the annual interest to decimal = = $93,714.28
As given, the bank requires 4 discount points, this becomes 0.04.
So, total loan amount = = $3748.57 ≈ $3749
Hence, the discount points will cost 3749.