Solution:
Given ,
1 Year interest rates in Europe = 4 %
1 Year interest rates in the U.S. = 2 %
You are translating $200,000 and spending $200,000 in French
Current spot rate of the euro = $1.20
a. (2%-4%)/(1+4%)=(S - 1.20) / 1.20
S= $1.1769 one year Euro rate
b. ( $1 / 1.20 )( 1 + 4% )* 1.12 = $.9707 return of -2.93% (loss)
c. ( $1 / 1.20) ( 1 + 4%)* 1.31 = $1.1353 return of 13.53% (gain)
d . ($1 / 1.20) ( 1 + 4%) *S = $1 (1+2%) ;
S=$1.1769
A spot rate of over $1.17697 (this is the same in part A) would be effective.
Answer:
-$2,350
Explanation:
In this question, we have to compare the cost which is shown below:
If we considered the reworked cost, then the sales would be
= Sales - reworked cost
= $55,700 - $1,750
= $53,950
And the scrap value is $56,300
So, the financial disadvantage would be
= Sales without reworked cost - scrap value
= $53,950 - $56,300
= -$2,350
All other information which is given is not relevant. Hence, ignored it
Answer:
the last part of the question is missing, so I looked for it:
a. Randy received $2,200 of interest this year and no other investment income or expenses. His AGI is $75,000.
b. Randy had no investment income this year, and his AGI is $75,000.
a) Randy can deduct $31,575:
- the mortgage interest is deductible
- the car loan interest is not deductible
- he can deduct $4,725 - $2,200 = $2,525 as investment interest expense
b) Randy can deduct $29,050
- the mortgage interest is deductible
- the car loan interest is not deductible
- since he had no investment revenue, he cannot deduct any investment interest expense
Answer:
b. we should get an accurate picture of how all consumer goods and services prices changed from year to year.
Explanation:
Wether it is ased on a fixed goods of goods or based on a changing goods of goods that gets old after time, we should check how is it work with this policy
The goal for the index is to adjust the value of assets by the inflation rate to calcualte the loss for having dollar bills.
Explanation:
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