Answer:
The answer is the first choice, that the outcomes (getting a 2, 4, or 6 or getting a 1, 3, or 5) are equally likely because the frequencies are close.
Step-by-step explanation:
The second choice isn't true because there isn't a lot of variation. If there was, this would mean they aren't equally likely.
The third choice isn't true because it doesn't make a statement about why the odd/even identity of the sets should affect the likelihood. (Besides, we know they are equally likely.)
The fourth choice isn't true because there is not a lot of difference in the relative frequency.
please give me brainliest