Step-by-step explanation and answers:
300 articles at a total cost of $1500:
$1500 / 300 = $5 / article
Sells 260 articles at a price 20% above this ^ price:
20% of $5 is $1, so $5 + $1 = $6
Then he sells 260 articles at the price of ^ $6
260 * $6 = $1560
Each of the remaining articles is sold at a price that's 50% of the 260 he sold.
He sold those for $6, so he would now sell the last 40 for $3
From the remaining 40 articles, he makes 40 * $3, or $120
The shopkeeper made $1560 + $120 = $1680, which is $180 more than he bought them for ($1500)
Therefore, he made a profit percentage of $180 / $1500, (the amount of profit over the amount spent).
He made a profit percentage, compared to the cost price, of 12%.
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Recall that the notion of the derivative of a function is the rate of change of it. So it kind of tells us how much the value of functioin changes as the independt variable increases or decreases. If it is positive, this means that the function will increase as the indepent variable increases, and if it is negative, that means that the function will decrease as the indepent variable increases.
a) Since f(x) is the number of units you can make out of x units of raw material, it is natural to think that the more material you have, the more units you can make, so we expect f'(x) to be positive.
b) The company buys each unit of raw material at the price w. So the product wx represents the total cost of the raw material used to produce f(x) units. Since each produced unit is sell at the price of p, then the product pf(x) represents the total income for selling all f(x) units.Recall that the profit is the difference between the total income and the total cost of production. Hence, the profit in this case is represented by the formula pf(x)-wx.
c) Recall that a function h(x) that is differentiable attains it's maximum when it's derivative is 0 and it's second derivative is negative.
In this case, we know that the derivative of the profit function, evaluated at x* must be 0, since it is a maximum. So, using the rules of derivation, we know that the derivative of the profit function is pf'(x)-w. Hence,
pf'(x*)-w =0. From where we know that f'(x*)=w/p.
If you would like to solve 80% of 40, you can do this using the following steps:
80% of 40 = 80% * 40 = 80/100 * 40 = 32
The correct result would be 32.
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
