1. Unions have been in decline since the 1960s because of
Answer: <u>A. foreign competition.</u>
Explanation: Unions were often conducted in the past in order to protect workers from<em> "arbitrary decisions" </em>of employers. Such decisions resulted to the<em> laying off of workers </em>and<em> cutting of wages</em>. On the contrary, business owners have a different goal. They wanted to make more profit by cutting the wages, so they didn't like the unions. However, unions have been in decline in the 1960s, mainly because of international/foreign competitions. This is because the "bargaining power of the unions as they represent the employees were reduced."
2. When a bank evaluates a person for a loan, what does the word "capacity" refer to?
Answer: <u>C. The ability to make payments on time.</u>
Explanation: A bank evaluates a person for a loan according to his "capability to pay" the loaned amount. It is not according to his willingness to pay, but to his<em> "ability to return the money</em>." In order to know whether a person is capable of repaying the money on time, the bank analyzes the borrower's gross income and his debt.
Answer:
0.0210
Explanation:
The computation of the weight of the preferred stock is shown below:
Particulars Shares Price Value ( Shares × Price) Weight ( Value ÷Total value)
Equity 10,800 $42 $4,53,600 0.4179
Preferred Stock 245 $93 $22,785 0.0210
Bonds 580 $1,050 $6,09,000 0.5611
Total value $1,085,385
for computing the weight we simply divide the value of the preferred stock with the total value
1.to make circuit to be smaller hence less number of logic gate.
2.reduces propagation.
Answer: 29.93%
Explanation:
You can use Excel to solve for this.
Bear in mind that when given a series of cashflows, the expected return is the Internal Rate of Return (IRR).
Initial investment = $32
First cashflow = $1.25
Second cashflow = $1.31
Third cashflow = $1.38 + $65 selling price = $66.38
IRR = 29.93%
Answer: $471,324.61
Explanation:
Price of a bond = Present value of coupon payments + Present value of face value at maturity
Coupon payments = 500,000 * 11% * 1/2 years = $27,500
Periodic yield = 12%/ 2 = 6% per semi annual period
Periods = 10 * 2 = 20 semi annual periods
Coupon payment is constant so it is an annuity.
Price of bond = Present value of annuity + Present value of face value at maturity
= (Annuity * Present value interest factor of Annuity, 6%, 20 years) + Face value / (1 + rate) ^ number of periods
= (27,500 * 11.4699) + 500,000 / (1 + 6%)²⁰
= $471,324.61