Answer:
The increase in demand of the product with the higher price or decrease in demand for the other goods is because the substitution effect is outweighed by the income effect of price increase.
Explanation:
The above explanation in economics refers to Giffen Good. The idea behind this concept Giffen is that if you do not have money and there is an increase in the price of a fundamental product such as bread, it is still impossible to afford other alternatives, hence you will go ahead to buy bread or avoid buying any of the product. Hence, the demand for other product will also decrease in this case. This means that the demand for product with higher price or decrease in other substitute product is due to the fact that the income effect outweighs the substitution effect. Hence people do not have the money to even afford the alternative product.
Answer:
$20,000
Explanation:
Max company makes use of 20,000 units of part A to manufacture its product
A supplier offers to produce part A for $7
Max company has relevant costs to $8 per unit to produce part A
Therefore, the opportunity cost of not buying part A from the supplier can be calculated as follows
Opportunity cost= 20,000 units of part A($8-$7)
= 20,000 units×$1
= 20,000×$1
= $20,000
Hence the opportunity cost of not buying part A from the supplier when there is excess capacity is $20,000
I'd rather use my Saving but Getting a loan from family or friend is Kinda Nice if they have the money for it. but Borrowing from a Bank is Smart But Do You Even Have enough money in you're bank for it?
Answer: (a).
Annexure: <u>Since a part of the information was found missing in the question, a similar question has been provided as an attachment for reference. </u>
If the interest rate falls with other things remaining constant, a firm would like to raise more money via debt instruments.
This will lead to an increase in the quantity of loanable funds demanded.
This would further lead to increase in the level of invested funds by the public as it would get cheaper for the corporates to avail loans.
Answer:
a. 2.23
b. 3.21
Explanation:
a. Answer to Part A
Payback Period = Investment / Annual Cash Inflow
= 250000 / 112115
= 2.23
Answer to Part B
Payback Period = Investment / Annual Cash Inflow
= 200000 / 62375
= 3.21
Working Note
<em>Particulars Case A Case B
</em>
After Tax Income 72115 39000
Add: Depreciation 40000 23375
Cash Inflow 11,2115 62375
<em>Particulars Case A Case B
</em>
Cost of Machine 250000 200000
Less: salvage Value 10000 13000
Depreciable Value 240000 187000
Life of the Asset 6 8
Annual Depreciation 40000 23375
