It can be anyways..400 minutes after 30 or 30 minutes after 400
It’s A because (-2)2+(4)2-2(-2)+4(4)+8=0
-4+8+4+-16+8
(8+8) (-4+4) (-16)
16 -16 =0
Answer: $2421.95
Step-by-step explanation:
A = p(1 + r/n) ^nt
A= 2000(1+0.024/4)^4x8
A= 2421.95
1- <span>D. 9x2yz
2- </span><span>C. 2x2y + x2 − 3x + 4
3- </span><span>A. x + 2xyz
4- </span><span>B. 3x + y + z</span>
Proof by induction
Base case:
n=1: 1*2*3=6 is obviously divisible by six.
Assumption: For every n>1 n(n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 6.
For n+1:
(n+1)(n+2)(n+3)=
(n(n+1)(n+2)+3(n+1)(n+2))
We have assumed that n(n+1)(n+2) is divisble by 6.
We now only need to prove that 3(n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 6.
If 3(n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 6, then (n+1)(n+2) must be divisible by 2.
The "cool" part about this proof.
Since n is a natural number greater than 1 we can say the following:
If n is an odd number, then n+1 is even, then n+1 is divisible by 2 thus (n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 2,so we have proved what we wanted.
If n is an even number" then n+2 is even, then n+1 is divisible by 2 thus (n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 2,so we have proved what we wanted.
Therefore by using the method of mathematical induction we proved that for every natural number n, n(n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 6. QED.
