The answer is B because both have access to capital that competitive markets wouldn’t give them because they dominate the market place and drive out competitors
Answer:
The correct answer is 2. provides the supporting reasons before the primary message.
Explanation:
Answer:
14.58%
Explanation:
WACC = weight of equity x cost of equity + weight of debt x cost of debt x (1 - tax rate) + weight of preferred equity x dividend yield
According to the capital asset price model: Expected rate of return = risk free + beta x (market rate of return - risk free rate of return)
r= 3% + 1.1 x 8 = 11.8
equity = 0.4 x 11.8% = 4.72
d = 0.4 x 5 x (1 -0.21) = 1.58
p = 0.2 x 6 = 1.2
11.8 + 1.58 + 1.2 =
Answer and Explanation:
The computation is shown below
1. The adjusted balance in the retained earning is shown below:
= beginning balance of retained earning + adjusted net income
where,
beginning balance of retained earning is $860,000
And, the adjusted net income is
= $68,000 × (1 - 0.35)
= $44,200
So, the adjusted balance in the retained earning is
= $860,000 + $44,200
= $904,200
2. Now the journal entry is
Inventory $68,000
To Retained earning $44,200
To Tax payable $23,800 ($68,000 × 35%)
(Being the adjustment of ending inventory is recorded)
It increased the inventory and along with it it also increased the equity and liabilities so the respective account is debited and credited