Answer:
There is about 4,164/4,165 chances of not getting getting a four of a kind. So, it is extremely unlikely or even borderline impossible in that situation to get a four of a kind.
<u>But in the long run, it can be increased only if you keep drawing. So, the awnser would have to be. D </u>
Step-by-step explanation:
A. It does mean that if you are dealt 4165 five‑card poker hands, one will be four‑of‑a‑kind.
B. It does not mean that all will be four‑of‑a‑kind. The probability is actually saying that only on the 4165 the poker hand will you get a four‑of‑a‑kind, not just on any of the 4165 poker hands.
C. The probability is actually saying that in the long run, with a large number of five‑card poker hands, the fraction in which you will be dealt a four‑of‑a‑kind is 1 / 4165.
D. The chance you will be dealt four‑of‑a‑kind is 1 / 4165 only on the first hand. This chance will then increase with each new hand you are dealt until you eventually win
Answer:
Try your best! I know you can do it!
Answer: 49.2 cm
Explanation: I don’t know how to explain it without a visual so I hope you end up figuring it out! All I can say is: use Pythagorean’s theorem for that triangle to the left (if you know what I mean) to find the hypotenuse and then add all the sides up!
Have a great day!
▼・ᴥ・▼
Answer:
B. There is a slightly more even distribution in the numbers in Joan's Group than in Todd's Group. C. Only one number, 28, is the same between the two samples.
Step-by-step explanation:Your welcome loves :)
