Answer: B. x ~ B(50, .1)
In other words, it's the second answer choice
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Explanation:
We have n = 50 people in the sample and p = 0.10 is the decimal form of 10%, to represent the probability of success. In this case, we define "success" as "the person passes the fitness test".
The random variable x is the count of how many people pass. So we could have x = 0, x = 1, x = 2, ..., x = 49, x = 50. Basically any whole number from 0 to 50 inclusive. Furthermore, x is approximately modeled by the binomial distribution which we denote as B(n, p) = B(50, 0.1)
So X ~ B(50, 0.1)
Answer:
x=6
Step-by-step explanation:
6(2x -11) 15 =21
6 × 2x = 12x
6 × -11 = -66
12x -66 + 15 = 21
-66 + 15 = -51
12x -51 = 21
-51 + 51 = 0
21 + 51 = 72
12x = 72
12x ÷ 2 = 0
72 ÷ 12 = 6
x = 6
Answer:
$86.81
Step-by-step explanation:
Using the given formula, we want to compute A for ...
P = 4750
r = 0.2279
n = 365 . . . . . assuming "exact" interest
t = 1 or 30
For 1 day late:
A = 4750(1 +0.2279/365)^(365·(1/365)) = 4752.97
For 30 days late:
A = 4750(1 +0.2279/365)^(365·(30/365)) = 4839.78
The difference in these payment amounts is ...
$4839.78 -4752.97 = $86.81
You would save $86.81 in interest charges by paying only 1 day late.
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<em>Comment on the question</em>
It would be a poor choice of credit card to use one that compounds interest daily. Most do so on a monthly basis.