Answer:
option (b) $4,200 gain
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
Par value of outstanding bonds = $119,000
Carrying value of the bonds = $108,700
Price at which bond is called = $104,500
Now,
Gain on the retirement is calculated using the relation as;
Gain on retirement
= Carrying value of Bonds - Price at which bond is called
= $108,700 - $104,500
= $4,200
Since, the result is positive, therefore a gain will be recognized
Hence, correct answer is option (b) $4,200 gain
Answer:
Select the course of action
Explanation:
Because it’s the next step after collecting relevant information and evaluating each alternatives
Answer:
The break-even point is $25,900 units
Explanation:
In this question we use the formula of break-even point in unit sales which is shown below:
= (Fixed expenses) ÷ (Contribution margin per unit)
where,
Contribution margin per unit for product A = (Selling price per unit - Variable cost per unit) ×product mix
= ($13.50 - $6.15) × 40%
= $2.94
Contribution margin per unit for product B = (Selling price per unit - Variable cost per unit) ×product mix
= ($16.75 - $6.85) × 60%
= $5.94
So, the total contribution margin would be equal to
= $2.94 + $5.94
= $8.88
And, the fixed cost is $230,000
Now put these values to the above formula
So, the value would be equal to
= $230,000 ÷ $8.88
= $25,900 units
Answer:
It represents the Integration stage
Explanation:
Money laundering is an illegal chain of activities done by individuals or corporate bodies to change the status of money gotten through a criminal activity into legitimate money. This chain of activities starts with the Placement stage then transforms into the Layering stage, then ends when it is already integrated into the legitimate financial system through the Integration stage.
After the money launderer conceals the illegal money through bank deposits or purchasing a life insurance policy at the Placement stage, the launderer then proceeds to further break the money into smaller amounts to evade suspicion by numerous transactions and bank deposits at the Layering stage, which is then ended by partial or whole surrenders of life insurance policies to make it now legitimate money.
Answer:
The long term capital gain= $30000-$25000
The long term capital gain= $5000
The basis in stock will be zero after the distribution.
Explanation:
Step 1 of 3
Tax treatment of amount distributed to shareholders:
The amount received as distribution to a shareholder under S Corporation is equal to the cash and fair market value of property distributed. The distribution is considered as tax-free to the limit that it does not exceed shareholder’s basis in the company’s stock. Any amount received in excess of basis will be treated as capital gain.
Step 2 of 3
However, taxation depends whether S Corporation has ever been a C Company or it posses’ accumulated earnings and profits. If it was never a C Corporation or doesn’t holds AEP then distribution equals to basis of share in S Corporation is a tax free gain for shareholder. Gain over and above basis is taxed as capital gains.
Step 3 of 3
In the given problem, C is a shareholder in S Corporation. He receives $30,000 as cash distribution. His basis in stock is $25,000. The distribution up to basis of stock is tax free distribution and above that is charged to capital gains. It is as follows-
Thus, capital gain of is taxable in hands of C. His basis in S Corporation will reduced to zero as entire distribution is over and above basis of his stock.