116/21 hope this helped !
Answer:
Check the explanation
Step-by-step explanation:
(a)Let p be the smallest prime divisor of (n!)^2+1 if p<=n then p|n! Hence p can not divide (n!)^2+1. Hence p>n
(b) (n!)^2=-1 mod p now by format theorem (n!)^(p-1)= 1 mod p ( as p doesn't divide (n!)^2)
Hence (-1)^(p-1)/2= 1 mod p hence [ as p-1/2 is an integer] and hence( p-1)/2 is even number hence p is of the form 4k+1
(C) now let p be the largest prime of the form 4k+1 consider x= (p!)^2+1 . Let q be the smallest prime dividing x . By the previous exercises q> p and q is also of the form 4k+1 hence contradiction. Hence P_1 is infinite
Answer:
4 blu-rays
Step-by-step explanation:
*Note: I'm rounding up to full dollars to make this easier. You will get the same answer, whether you round up or not.
First, get rid of the shipping cost from the budget.
$150 - $10 = <u>$140 left for blu-rays</u>
Then divide $140 by $30, which is the price for a single blu-ray to get the number of blu-rays Chris can get.
$140 ÷ $30 ≈ 4.6 repeating. You can't have a fraction of a movie, so Chris can get 4 blu-rays
Answer:
C
Step-by-step explanation:
Cuz I said so
Answer:
1. 3(9K-2)
2. 5(x+12y)
Step-by-step explanation: