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2 years ago

A 3250-kg aircraft takes 12.5 min to achieve its cruising

Physics

1 answer:

scoundrel [369]2 years ago

8 0

Answer:

effeciency n = = 49%

Explanation:

given data:

mass of aircraft 3250 kg

power P = 1500 hp = 1118549.81 watt

time = 12.5 min

h = 10 km = 10,000 m

v =85 km/h = 236.11 m/s

$n = \frac{P_0}{P}$

$P_o = \frac{total\ energy}{t} = \frac{ kinetic \energy + gravitational\ energy}{t}$

kinetic energy $= \frac{1}{2} mv^2 =\frac{1}{2} 3250* 236 = 90590389.66 kg m^2/s^2$

kinetic energy $= 90590389.66 kg m^2/s^2$

gravitational energy $= mgh = 3250*9.8*10000 = 315500000.00 kg m^2/s^2$

total energy $= 90590389.66 +315500000.00 = 409091242.28 kg m^2/s^2$

$P_o =\frac{409091242.28}{750} = 545454.99 j/s$

$effeciency\ n = \frac{P_o}{P} = \frac{545454.99}{1118549.81} = 0.49$

effeciency n = = 49%

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During a testing process, a worker in a factory mounts a bicycle wheel on a stationary stand and applies a tangential resistive

Katyanochek1 [597]

Answer:

The force is $F = 1041.7N$

Explanation:

The moment of Inertia I is mathematically evaluated as

$I = MR_A^2$

Substituting $1.9kg$ for M(Mass of the wheel) and $\frac{66cm}{2} * \frac{1m}{100cm} = 0.33m$ for $R_A$ (Radius of wheel)

$I = 1.9 * 0.33^2$

$= 0.207kgm^2$

The torque on the wheel due to net force is mathematically represented as

$\tau = FR_B - F_rR_A$

Substituting 135 N for $F_r$ (Force acting on sprocket), $\frac{8.7cm}{2} * \frac{1m}{100cm} = 0.0435m$ for $R_B$ (radius of the chain) and F is the force acting on the sprocket due to the chain which is unknown for now

$\tau = F (0.0435) - 135 (0.33)$

This same torque due to the net force is the also the torque that is required to rotate the wheel to have an angular acceleration of $\alpha = 3.70 rad/s^2$ and this torque can also be represented mathematically as

$\tau = \alpha I$

Now equating the two equation for torque

$F (0.0435) - 135 (0.33) = \alpha I$

Making F the subject

$F = \frac{\alpha I + (135*0.33) }{0.0435}$

Substituting values

$F = \frac{(3.70 * 0.207) + (135*0.33)}{0.0435}$

$= 1041.7N$

4 0

2 years ago

A metal wire breaks when its tension reaches 100 newton. If the radius and length of the wire were both doubled then it would br

serg [7]

Answer:

200 N

Explanation:

Since Young's modulus for the metal, E = σ/ε where σ = stress = F/A where F = force on metal and A = cross-sectional area, and ε = strain = e/L where e = extension of metal = change in length and L = length of metal wire.

So, E = σ/ε = FL/eA

Now, since at break extension = e.

So making e subject of the formula, we have

e = FL/EA = FL/Eπr² where r = radius of metal wire

Now, when the radius and length are doubled, we have our extension as e' = F'L'/Eπr'² where F' = new force on metal wire, L' = new length = 2L and r' = new radius = 2r

So, e' = F'(2L)/Eπ(2r)²

e' = 2F'L/4Eπr²

e' = F'L/2Eπr²

Since at breakage, both extensions are the same, e = e'

So, FL/Eπr² = F'L/2Eπr²

F = F'/2

F' = 2F

Since F = 100 N,

F' = 2 × 100 N = 200 N

So, If the radius and length of the wire were both doubled then it would break when the tension reached 200 Newtons.

7 0

2 years ago

You are trying to climb a castle wall so, from the ground, you throw a hook with a rope attached to it at 24.1 m/s at an angle o

Serhud [2]

Answer:

The value is $h = 13.2 \ m$

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

The speed of the rope with hook is $u = 24 .1 \ m/s$

The angle is $\theta = 65.0^o$

The speed at which it hits top of the wall is $v = 16.3 m/s$

Generally from kinematic equation we have that

$v_y^2 = u_y ^2 + * 2 (-g)* h$

Here h is the height of the wall so

$[16.3 sin (65)]^2 = [24.1 sin (65)] ^2+ 2 (-9.8)* h$

=> $h = 13.2 \ m$

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2 years ago

A light-year is a unit of a. time. c. mass. b. distance. d. density. please select the best answer from the choices provided a b

11111nata11111 [884]

Answer:

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Explanation:

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1 year ago

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frutty [35]

Answer:

The distance in kilometers is 4012 × $10^{-6}$ km.

Explanation:

We know that the conversion of 1 millimeters is equal to $10^{-3}$ meter. And then the conversion of 1 meter is equal to $10^{-3}$ km. Then the conversion of 1 millimeter to km will be

1 mm = $10^{-3}$ m

1 m = $10^{-3}$ km

So, 1 mm = $10^{-3}$ × $10^{-3}$ km = $10^{-6}$ km.

As here the the distance is 4012 mm, then the distance in km will be

4012 mm = 4012 × $10^{-6}$ km.

So the distance is 4012 × $10^{-6}$ km.

5 0

2 years ago