There are a couple of different approaches you can use for this. Here's one.
1. Determine how many digits repeat. (There is just one repeating digit.)
2. Call your number x. Multiply x by 10 to the power of the number of digits found in step 1.
3. Subtract the original number, then solve for x.
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If you recognize that 0.333... (repeating) is 1/3, then you know that 0.0333... (repeating) is 1/10×1/3 = 1/30. Add that to 0.8 = 4/5 and you get
... 4/5 + 1/30 = 24/30 + 1/30 = 25/30 = 5/6
Answer:-72
Step-by-step explanation:
(6)*(-12)
-72
Answer:
He wont foul out with probability 0.9093
Step-by-step explanation:
The total number of fools he picked is a Binomial ditribution noted by X with parameters p = 0.05 and N = 48. The mean of this random variable is μ = np = 48*0.05 = 2.4 and the variance is σ² = np(1-p) = 2.4*0.95 = 2.28, hence its standard deviation is σ = √2.28 = 1.51.
Note that, if approximate probability is asked, we could just approximate X with a Normal random variable with mean 2.4 and standard deviation 1.51 (this can be done because of the central limit theorem). We will calculate the probability manually. He wont foul out if he picks 0,1,2,3 or 4 fouls, thus
As a consecuence, he wont foul out with probability 0.9093.
Answer:
no solutions
Step-by-step explanation:
Since the two terms have the same base, we are able to use the rule for subtracting logarithms:
Therefore, the equation can be written as:
By using the definition of a logarithm we can say that:
When plugging this solution in, you find that the term has x-6 evaluate to a number less than 0. This is not included in the domain of log functions, so is not a valid solution. This means that there are no solutions.
SAS only. The 3rd side cannot be proven.