Answer:
= 6n - 4
Step-by-step explanation:
There is a common difference between consecutive terms in the sequence, that is
8 - 2 = 14 - 8 = 6
This indicates the sequence is arithmetic with n th term
= a₁ + (n - 1)d
where a₁ is the first term and d the common difference
Here a₁ = 2 and d = 6 , thus
= 2 + 6(n - 1) = 2 + 6n - 6 = 6n - 4
Thus the formula representing the sequence is
= 6n - 4
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that,
a)
X ~ Bernoulli and Y ~ Bernoulli
X + Y = Z
The possible value for Z are Z = 0 when X = 0 and Y = 0
and Z = 1 when X = 0 and Y = 1 or when X = 1 and Y = 0
If X and Y can not be both equal to 1 , then the probability mass function of the random variable Z takes on the value of 0 for any value of Z other than 0 and 1,
Therefore Z is a Bernoulli random variable
b)
If X and Y can not be both equal to 1
then,
or
and
c)
If both X = 1 and Y = 1 then Z = 2
The possible values of the random variable Z are 0, 1 and 2.
since a Bernoulli variable should be take on only values 0 and 1 the random variable Z does not have Bernoulli distribution
The y-intercept (where the line hits the y-axis) will move from (0, 1/2) to (0, -2)
B . Approaches -4
I’m pretty sure it’s -4
The are 12 inches in a foot. So 100ipm ÷12= fpm :) hope this helps