Step-by-step explanation:
∫₋₂² (f(x) + 6) dx
Split the integral:
∫₋₂² f(x) dx + ∫₋₂² 6 dx
Graphically, if f(-x) = -f(x), then ∫₋₂² f(x) dx = 0. But we can also show this algebraically.
Split the first integral:
∫₋₂⁰ f(x) dx + ∫₀² f(x) dx + ∫₋₂² 6 dx
Using substitution, write the first integral in terms of -x.
∫₂⁰ f(-x) d(-x) + ∫₀² f(x) dx + ∫₋₂² 6 dx
-∫₂⁰ f(-x) dx + ∫₀² f(x) dx + ∫₋₂² 6 dx
Flip the limits and multiply by -1.
∫₀² f(-x) dx + ∫₀² f(x) dx + ∫₋₂² 6 dx
Rewrite f(-x) as -f(x).
∫₀² -f(x) dx + ∫₀² f(x) dx + ∫₋₂² 6 dx
-∫₀² f(x) dx + ∫₀² f(x) dx + ∫₋₂² 6 dx
The integrals cancel out:
∫₋₂² 6 dx
Evaluating:
6x |₋₂²
6 (2 − (-2))
24
Answer:
(a)
(b)
i.
ii.
iii.
Step-by-step explanation:
Given
Solving (a): List all possible elements using set-roster notation.
The possible elements are:
And the number of elements are:
Solving (bi) Exactly 1 girl
From the list of possible elements, we have:
And the number of the list is;
The probability is calculated as;
Solving (bi) At least 2 are girls
From the list of possible elements, we have:
And the number of the list is;
The probability is calculated as;
Solving (biii) No girl
From the list of possible elements, we have:
And the number of the list is;
The probability is calculated as;
Subtract 5 and 3 then add 3 to the number you get? Idk I think thats what you do
I got 1/81. because u spun the spinner twice i multiplied the regions you are allowed to get by 2 which makes your denominator 18 then you can get the numbers 3 and 6 twice since the spinner is used twice then multiplied them together. so it would be 2/18 x 2/18 = 4/324 which equals 1/81
Answer:
I dont like kanacatamy
Step-by-step explanation:
but 17,000. 7,000. 200
