We have that F=ma from the 2nd Newton law where F is the force, m is the mass and a is the acceleration. Suppose we have that F' is the new force and m' is the new mass. Then, we have that a'=F'/m' still, by rearranging Newton's law. We are given that F'=2F and m'=m/2. Hence,
But now, we have from F=ma, that a=F/m and we are given that a=1m/s^2.
We can substitute thus, a'=4a=4*1m/s^2=4m/s^2.
A is the answer I really don’t know the answer to that but if u can u can help me on my work
Answer:
Explanation:
Here we know that for the given system of charge we have no loss of energy as there is no friction force on it
So we will have
now we know when particle will reach the closest distance then due to electrostatic repulsion the speed will become zero.
So we have
so distance moved by the particle is given as
Thermal energy comes from the ,movement of particles which produces heat, the faster the movement is the more heat
<span>K.E = 0.5 * m * v^2 ( m = mass(Kg), V = Velocity(m/s)
= 0.5 * 8 * 5^2
= 4 * 25
= 100 J </span>