Sin2(x) +cos(x)=1
from the relation: (sin2(x) +cos2(x) =1 )
so , sin2(x)=1-cos2(x)
by subs. in the main eqn.
1-cos2(x) + cos(x) =1
by simplify the eqn.
cos(x) -cos2(x)=0
take cos(x) as a common factor
cos(x)* (1-cos(x))=0
then cos(x)=0 && cos(x)=1
cos(x)=0 if x= pi/2
& cos(x) = 1 if x = 0 , 2*pi
so the solution is x= {0,pi/2 , 2*pi}
The slope-point form of a line:
The slope-intercept form of a line:
1.
Substitute
2.
Substitute
3.
4.
Answer: C
Step-by-step explanation:
Simplify the expression to 2^1/4
Now transform the expression using a^m/n = n root a raised to a power of m.
And that's how you get your answer.
Answer:
D
Step-by-step explanation:
When all the members in a domain has only but one member in the do main then function has been satisfied.
considering a situation of,
4 1
6 1
8 2
the domain has only one member in the Co domain hence which makes it a function
Hope this helps. <3 (sorry if it’s a little blurry)
