Answer:
The bond will sell at $4831.43
Explanation:
Given C = 0, FV = $1000, YTM= 5.31%, n =30 years
BV= ?
BV for a zero coupon bond is = F / (1+r)^-n*t
So we are told there is semi annual compounding
have to calculate
n = 30*2 = 60 periods
r = 5.31/2 = 2.66%
BV = 1000/(1+0.0266)^-60
=$4831.43
Answer: Option a
Explanation: Payback period in capital budgeting comes from a time needed to recover or exceed the break-even point of the funds spent on a project. Moreover, the payback period does not take into account the time value of money.
It is based on the number of years it would take for the funds spent to be recovered. Thus, payback period only evaluates a project on the basis of time period it takes to recover back the investment this results in ignorance of cash flows, which might be huge in amount, that results after the pay back period.
Answer:
C
Explanation:
The total revenues from buyers and stock holders.
Answer:
The additional sale will not conflict with regular sales.
Explanation:
Accept business at a special price if the additional sales conflict regular sales. That is, special price must maintain the status quo or improve it.
The correct option is B
<u>Explanation:</u>
In an economy, planned investment spending is always equal to planned saving. If actual saving falls short of (exceeds) planned saving, then actual investment falls short of (exceeds) planned investment.
That is the other part of the saving paradox. If an economy produces too much, such that saving is greater than planned investment, inventory will build up, giving signal to producers to reduce output, to restore equilibrium. Such investment scheme is suitable only to communist countries. Keynes has another investment theory in his liquidity story. But investment theories are equally a posterior.
Therefore, Option B is correct