Answer:
Dr. Investments in Associates 250,000
Cr. Cash 500,000
Dr. Cash 10,000
Cr. Investments in Associates 10,000
Dr. Investments in Associates 50,000
Cr. Investment revenue 50,000
Explanation:
The equity method is a type of accounting used to incorporate investments. It is used when the investor holds significant influence over the investee but does not exercise full control over it.
An investor is deemed to have significant influence over an investee if it owns between 20% to 50% of the investee’s shares or voting rights.
- Jolley receives dividends of $10,000, which is 25% of $40,000, and records a reduction in their investment account. The reason for this is that they have received money from their investee.
- Jolley records the net income from Tige Co. as an increase to its Investment account.
A) hotspot
Bluetooth is for short distance and pan is Personal area networks (PANs) connect an individual's personal devices
The spread between the interest rates on bonds with default risk and default-free bonds is called the risk premium.
A default-free bond is a bond in which the bond issuer would not miss scheduled payments of either the coupon or principal. Bonds issued by the government are generally considered to be default-free. This is because the government can print money to make payments.
A bond with a default risk is a bond in which the bond issuer can miss scheduled payments of either the coupon or the principal. Bonds issued by private individuals are generally considered to be bonds with default risk.
Bondholders usually demand a compensation for holding bonds with a default risk. This compensation is known as risk premium.
Risk premium = return on bonds with default risk - return on default- free bond.
To learn more, please check: brainly.com/question/4304080?referrer=searchResults
The largest amount of money the government lays out is for the transfer program, Social Security. And its largest expenditure is for national defense. America is quite known for spending a lot of money on defending itself from any possible threat.
Answer:
$2722.82
Explanation:
Present value of loan = $1,000 * [(1+5%)^3 - 1]/ 5%
= $1,000 * (1.157625 - 1) / 0.05
= $1,000 * 0.157625/ 0.05
= $1,000 * 3.1525
= $3152.50
The present value of loan before bank restructuring is $3152.
Future value = Cash flow / (1+r)^n
= $3152 / (1+0.05)^3
= $3152 / (1.05)^3
= $3152 / 1.157625
= $2722.82
Therefore, the final payment required to pay to make indifferent for both payment is $2722.82