Answer:
see explanation
Explanation:
Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) is the cost of a firm from permanent sources of capital pooled together.
WACC = Cost of equity x Weight of equity + Cost of Debt x Weight of Debt + Cost of Preference Stock x Weight of Preference Stock
where,
Cost of equity = Return on Risk free rate + Beta x Risk Premium
= 9.00 % + 2.5 x (14.00 % - 9.00%)
= 21.50 %
Cost of debt :
<em>similar</em>
N = 7 x 2 = 14
p/yr = 2
pmt = ($787.22 x 8%) ÷ 2 =
fv = $787.22 x number of bonds
pv = $80,000,000
<u>Always use the after tax cost of debt :</u>
after tax cost of debt = interest x ( 1 - tax rate)
Answer:
The best answer for this question would be: Webcasting involves classroom instructions that are provided online through live broadcasts.
Explanation:
The other answers are incorrect because:
Audiovisual techniques are most effective when combined with other training strategies to provide context and opportunity for the learners to practice what they have learned.
Mobile technologies do not include simulation, case, studies, and on-the-job training.
The best people to be trained through teleconferencing would be those who are working from an office position, though not located in the same area as the training provider.
Classroom instruction is still a popular training method, because it's relative ease of access compared to other methods.
Answer:
Because the United States interest moved up and Indian Rupees depends mostly on the capital from the United States of America.
Explanation:
So, about the Indian rupees there are things we must note; (1). The inflation on Indian Rupees is high, (2). The problem of deficit account by the Rupee.
The two problems mentioned above are the problems that made Indian Rupees to rest or relent mostly on the United States of America Fed's cash flow. So, when U.S. Fed announced that it would begin to wind down its economic stimulus program the value of Indian Rupees DECREASES.
Answer:
71 days
Explanation:
Length of cash cycle = days of inventory on hand + days of sales outstanding - days of payables
days of sales outstanding = number of days in the period / receivable turnover
360 / 18 = 20
Complete Question:
What is the expected annual capital gain yield for Orange Corp stock, based on the Constant Dividend Growth Model? The company plans to pay an annual dividend of of $4.12 per share in one year. The expected annual growth rate of the dividend is 12.9%, and the required rate of return for the stock is 16.63%. Answer as a percentage, 2 decimal places (e.g., 12.34% as 12.34).
Answer:
12.9%
Explanation:
As we know that:
Capital Gain Yield = (P1 - P0) / P0
Step 1: Find P0
Po = D1 / (Ke - g)
Here
D1 is $4.12 per share
Ke is 16.63%
g is 12.9%
By putting values, we have:
Po = $4.12 / (16.63% - 12.9%)
= $110.46
Step 2: Find P1
P1 = D2 / (Ke - g)
Here
D2 = D1 * (1 + 12.9%) = $4.12 per share * (1 + 12.9%) = $4.65
Ke is 16.63%
g is 12.9%
By putting values, we have:
Po = $4.65 / (16.63% - 12.9%)
= $124.70
<u>Step3: Find Annual Capital Gain Yield</u>
Capital Gain Yield = (P1 - P0) / P0
Now by putting values, we have:
Capital Gain Yield = ($124.7 - $110.46) / $110.46
= 12.9%