Answer:
Please find the detailed answer as follows:
Explanation:
a) Predetermined overhead rate = Estimated manufacturing overhead cost / Estimated total units in the allocation based
Predetermined overhead rate = 600,000 / 500,000 = 1.2 perunit
b) Total fixed cost spending variance = Actual fixed overhead cost - Estimated overhead cost
= 599,400 - 600,000
= 600 (F) Favourable
c) Total fixed cost volume variance = Actual fixed overheads - Estimated fixed overheads
Actual fixed overheads = Estimated fixed overhead rate * Actual units produced
= 1.2 * 508,000 = $609,600
Total fixed cost volume variance =$ 609,600 - $600,000 = $9600 (F) Favourable
Answer:
indirect
Explanation:
The indirect method adjusts net income to find net cash provided by operating activities.
It was make up of mostly services, but also contained goods that had alot of labor put into them.
Answer: Her actions are inconsistent with the advice being given to her clients and this must be disclosed
Explanation:
Since the registered investment adviser often recommends real estate limited partnership investments to her wealthy clients but she never buys limited partnership units for her personal account.
This shows that her actions are inconsistent with the advice being given to her clients and this must be disclosed.
Its a pretty hard question but still u can someone else