Answer:
it is the second statement x⇒∞ Y⇒ ∞
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
85500000
Step-by-step explanation:
A graph which represents the linear function y = -2x is: graph B.
<h3>What is a graph?</h3>
In Mathematics, a graph can be defined as a type of chart that is typically used for the graphical representation of data points or ordered pairs on both the horizontal and vertical lines of a cartesian coordinate, which are the x-axis and y-axis respectively.
Generally speaking, the graph of any proportional relationship is characterized by a straight line with the data points passing through the origin (0, 0) because as the values on the x-axis (x-coordinate) either increases or decreases, the values on the y-axis (y-coordinate) increases or decreases simultaneously.
In this context, we can reasonably infer and logically deduce that the relationship between x-values and y-values in the graph of y = -2x is proportional as it passes through the origin (0, 0).
Read more on a graph here: brainly.com/question/16869886
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The simulation of the medicine and the bowler hat are illustrations of probability
- The probability that the medicine is effective on at least two is 0.767
- The probability that the medicine is effective on none is 0
- The probability that the bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is 0.3281
<h3>The probability that the medicine is effective on at least two</h3>
From the question,
- Numbers 1 to 7 represents the medicine being effective
- 0, 8 and 9 represents the medicine not being effective
From the simulation, 23 of the 30 randomly generated numbers show that the medicine is effective on at least two
So, the probability is:
p = 23/30
p = 0.767
Hence, the probability that the medicine is effective on at least two is 0.767
<h3>The probability that the medicine is effective on none</h3>
From the simulation, 0 of the 30 randomly generated numbers show that the medicine is effective on none
So, the probability is:
p = 0/30
p = 0
Hence, the probability that the medicine is effective on none is 0
<h3>The probability a bowler hits a headpin</h3>
The probability of hitting a headpin is:
p = 90%
The probability a bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is:
P(x) = nCx * p^x * (1 - p)^(n - x)
So, we have:
P(4) = 5C4 * (90%)^4 * (1 - 90%)^1
P(4) = 0.3281
Hence, the probability that the bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is 0.3281
Read more about probabilities at:
brainly.com/question/25870256